Over at Johnny T's a discussion/argument has been churning over the past couple months across a number of posts. This conversation has spanned a number of topics, but one of the more interesting to my mind has been our treatment of a text's Meaning and its relation to Authorial Intent. I tie them together inexorably, seeing that each text has one true meaning. Johnny T does not, opting to see multiple meanings per text. In his most recent post, on little horses, he asks me two questions:
How does the reader determine the intent of the author? If the intent of the author is unknown or unknowable, is the text meaningless?
I thought my answer might make good fodder for the thinking among you, so I'm reposting it here. Bon apetit.
1) How does the reader determine the intent of the author?
I don't believe that the reader has the ability (on this earth) to determine infallibly the intent of any author. I think we interpret somewhere between understanding and misunderstanding. If we were to present this mathematically, it would look like:
perfect understanding > our interpretation ≥ misunderstanding
I think that with people who communicate well together, interpretations will fall more often along a curve dominating the Understanding side of things. People who do not communicate well (or people who know nothing of each other) will more often fall on the Misunderstanding side of things.
That said, I think that if the reader is interested* in receiving the communication effected by the author, he should engage in those activities that general lead toward a better understanding of intent. Some of the tools of such readers are research into an author's context, understanding of "common usage" of whichever language the author chooses to communicate in, a familiarity with potential deviations from common usage that the author is likely to engage, and best of all, some explanation or clarification from the author himself as to what he intended. These tools, while aiding in interpretation do not guarantee a correct interpretation**; they merely give us the best potential for running into the correct interpretation.
* I think it's fine if readers aren't interested in receiving the effected communication. There is nothing wrong with this. But. We cannot say they are interested in the text's meaning. They are rather more likely to be interested in giving the text meaning - which is an entirely different endeavor.
** by "correct interpretation" I'm speaking of author intent.
2) If the intent of the author is unknown or unknowable, is the text meaningless?
The text is not meaningless, but if we cannot ascertain intent then we cannot discover the text's meaning. Of course we can add whatever meaning we want, but that's our meaning, not the text's.
As an example, let's say I am in the depths of the Pacific, searching for the lost civilization of Mu. I find an ancient tablet and discover a symbol that looks roughly like this: <o>
Now I could add meaning to that and say that they Mulians must have some connection to Milo Rambaldi. But that would be me, the reader, transmitting meaning back upon the author. And as funny as that might be, it doesn't help me figure out what the symbol means. Not knowing anything about the author (who or when they lived, whether they were human, whether the mark was made by sentient beings or whether it was carved by time and chance), I cannot possibly decipher the symbol's meaning. It may be absolutely packed with meaning but none of that transmission of meaning reaches me. It's been obscured by its sheer lack of context.
So the short answer: if author intent is unknowable, then the text is not necessarily meaningless but meaning has been lost, perhaps irretrievably.
Labels: literature, postmodernism, theory